Subject: Re: termless copyright and patents
From: <stephen@xemacs.org>
Date: Wed, 4 Oct 2006 00:47:11 +0900

s writes:

 > The extent of the GPLv2 implicit patent clause and that of the explicit
 > GPLv3 should be more or less the same.

That is the FSF's position, but the status of implicit patent licenses
is apparently very controversial, and I would imagine that that means
that so is the equivalence of implicit terms and explicit ones.

Also, as Tom points out, there is a difference in legal terminology
here ([implicit] "license" vs. "covenant not to enforce"), and I
wonder if that doesn't prevent them from being equivalent in important
ways.